1.In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A: analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
B: perform preliminary Site Assessment
C: configure core products
D: execute test cases
Correct Answers: C
2.Which of the following is a key objective of operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A: assess the ability of site facilities to accommodate the proposed solution
B: assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify its ability to support the proposed system
C: assess the current state of operations and network management infrastructure, including people, processes, and tools, to identify issues and opportunities
D: install and test system components in a nonproduction environment
Correct Answers: C
3.In the operate phase, the task of analyzing process exceptions belongs to which service component?
A: Problem Management
B: Service Assurance
C: Change Management
D: Incident Management
E: Security Administration
Correct Answers: B
4.In the implement phase, the ongoing support hand-off meeting provides which of the following benefits?
A: improves customer satisfaction by ensuring a productive operations environment of systems and processes; and minimizes the time it takes to migrate the customer into an automated and process-oriented environment, realizing productivity benefits from operations resources
B: provides the customer with necessary reactive break-fix services required for daily operation of the network, the availability of reactive break-fix services being a requirement for customer acceptance of the implementation
C: establishes both an ongoing review process to ensure that issues are addressed promptly and that the partner can assess and position service activities proactively and a communications mechanism to help the partner maintain awareness of the customer's issues
D: improves customer satisfaction by ensuring a productive operations environment of systems and processes; and minimizes the time it takes to migrate the customer into an automated and process-oriented environment, realizing productivity benefits from operations resources
Correct Answers: B
5.Network readiness assessment is an important service component in the plan phase. Which task is part of network readiness assessment?
A: accounting for all advanced technology system assets and configurations
B: conducting a discovery workshop to gather data and initiate network implementation plan development
C: assessing current infrastructure and applications and their readiness to support proposed advanced technology system
D: documenting network availability and redundancy requirements
E: developing Site Readiness Assessment Report
F: conducting Operations Readiness Assessment
Correct Answers: C
6.Low level design, site readiness report, project management plan, network implementation plan, and systems acceptance test plan are pre-requisites for which service component in the design phase?
A: Implementation Kick-off Meeting
B: Staff Plan Development
C: Staging Plan
D: Project Kick-off
E: Migration Plan Development
F: Business Plan
Correct Answers: E
7.Developing a baseline network element configuration for networking and applications devices to be implemented in a network is a deliverable for which service component in the design phase?
A: Detailed Design Development
B: Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
C: Staging Plan
D: Implementation Plan Development
E: Project Kick-off
Correct Answers: D
8.Assessing the existing network infrastructure is a task conducted as part of which service component in the plan phase?
A: Operations Readiness Assessment
B: Detailed Design Development
C: Solution Implementation
D: Account Planning
E: Network Readiness Assessment
Correct Answers: E
9.In the implement phase, project planning comprises which of the following tasks?
A: confirm project and milestone dates, as well as project and cutover roles and responsibilities
B: install, configure, and provision core products
C: update and document logical and physical topology maps and serial numbers
D: confirm deployment team, craft project plan, create communication and escalation plans
Correct Answers: D
10.Which two tasks are executed in the service assurance service component within the operate phase? (Choose two.)
A:analyze process exceptions
B:prepare a service readiness report
C:send internal/external surveys
D:review remediation plan from operational assessment
Correct Answers: A, C
1.The Cisco SDN allows organizations to manage the IT network security risk that is associated with the deployment of online business processes, ensuring that organizations achieve their objectives efficiently while managing associated risks. What are three key SDN components of the Cisco Application Abuse Prevention Solution that work together to offer this type of protection? (Choose three.)
A:access control solutions
B:content security solutions
C:detector and guard solutions
D:endpoint protection solutions
E:transaction security solutions
F:VPN solutions
Correct Answers: B, D, E
2.You are meeting with a financial customer who is concerned about Internet worms, viruses, and other threats. A worm or virus would cost millions of dollars in lost productivity, and malware or spyware could result in information theft. How should you position Anti-X defenses with this customer?
A: Anti-X defenses intelligently analyze network payload so that application security tools can control port 80 misuse by rogue applications.
B: Anti-X defenses provide broad attack-mitigation capabilities and distribute defenses throughout the network, including to critical system endpoints.
C: Anti-X defenses enable proactive response to threats by aggregating and correlating security information.
D: Anti-X defenses render malware and spyware harmless by managing patches more proactively.
Correct Answers: B
3.The Cisco SDN is a strategy to protect the business processes and the network of an organization by identifying, preventing, and adapting to security threats. What are three principal characteristics of the SDN? (Choose three.)
A:application security
B:adaptation
C:intelligence
D:collaboration
E:protection
F:integration
Correct Answers: B, D, F
4.Which security management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage, and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?
A: CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution
B: Cisco Network Assistant
C: Cisco NAC
D: Cisco Security MARS
Correct Answers: D
5.How do you calculate risk quantitatively for SLE?
A: single loss expectancy divided by the annualized rate of occurrence
B: exposure factor multiplied by the asset value
C: cost of recovery multiplied by the number of compromised servers
D: average revenue per hour divided by the hourly server downtime
Correct Answers: B
6.Which threat can be traced back to the outbreak prevention pain point?
A: protocol manipulation
B: user or administrator errors
C: attacks through permitted traffic
D: reconnaissance probes
Correct Answers: C
7.How does Anti-X defense stop attacks as far as possible from their intended destination and the core of the network?
A: Anti-X defense examines message-level information to ascertain the ntent?of the applications.
B: Anti-X defense intelligently analyzes network payload.
C: Anti-X defense distributes mitigation points throughout key security-enforcement points in the network.
D: Anti-X defense provides sophisticated auditing, control, and correlation capabilities to control and protect any networked element.
Correct Answers: C
8.Which government regulation is designed to create a common information security structure that is based on recognized best practices, and is an internationally recognized generic standard?
A: Basel II
B: BS 7799/ISO 17799
C: AS/NZS 4360
D: SOX
Correct Answers: B
9.Which government regulation affects companies in Australia and New Zealand that wish to comply with the first universal risk-management standard?
A: Basel II
B: AS/NZS 4360
C: GLB Act
D: BS 7799/ISO 17799
Correct Answers: B
10.What are three benefits of the Cisco SDN that will be recognized by technology decision makers? (Choose three.)
A:adapts to new and existing threats
B:lowers TCO by using the existing infrastructure
C:helps to meet regulatory requirements
D:protects against insecure or contaminated devices
E:increases ROI
F:effectively enforces security and confidentiality policies company-wide
Correct Answers: A, D, F
1.Which two access points would be appropriate for challenging RF environments? (Choose two.)
A:Cisco 1020 Series
B:Cisco 1100 Series
C:Cisco 1130AG Series
D:Cisco 1230AG Series
E:Cisco 1240AG Series
Correct Answers: D, E
2.Which security protocol is both an inherently flawed, one-way, device-centric form of authentication and a 40-bit encryption key?
A: Secure Socket Layer
B: Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Socket Layer
C: Secure Shell Protocol
D: Wired Equivalent Privacy
Correct Answers: D
3.What is an accurate description of a Cisco Wireless Control System?
A: provides an enterprise-ready, standards-based, WLAN security solution that gives network administrators confidence that their data will remain private and secure
B: handles real-time 802.11 radio functions within a Cisco centralized wireless LAN system, including radio transmit and receive, client probe requests, and air monitoring
C: provides a powerful foundation upon which IT managers can design, control, and monitor Cisco wireless networks from a centralized location, simplifying operations and reducing TCO
D: communicates with Cisco 1000 Series lightweight access points over any Layer 2 (Ethernet) or Layer 3 (IP) infrastructure using LWAPP
Correct Answers: C
4.Which technology is a centralized, systems-level application for managing and controlling an entire Cisco WLAN infrastructure?
A: CiscoWorks WLSE
B: Wireless Domain Services
C: Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D: Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System
Correct Answers: A
5.What is the best response to an IT director at a retail operation who is concerned about keeping track of high-value inventory?
A: The Cisco wireless location appliance is an end-to-end solution that can help manage store inventory.
B: WCS offers rogue access point detection that is displayed in visual floor maps.
C: The 802.1x security standards will help retail outfits comply with industry regulations.
D: Wireless connectivity can help bridge any gaps in the supply chain, from planning activities through sales associates at stores.
Correct Answers: A
6.When building an IT case for a given customer, you must address security in addition to which three other customer needs? (Choose three.)
A:cost-effective network
B:easy installation
C:flexibility
D:increased productivity
E:interoperability
F:scalability
Correct Answers: B, C, E
7.WLAN solutions extend wired networks for in-building and on-campus mobile workers. This enhanced network access directly enables a company to increase which three areas? (Choose three.)
A:billing accuracy
B:group collaboration
C:productivity
D:responsiveness to customers
E:shareholder trust
F:ROI
Correct Answers: B, C, D
8.Which two vertical segments actively use the adoption of 802.11 technology as a competitive differentiator? (Choose two.)
A:Education uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more students. Wireless networking creates a competitive advantage over schools and colleges that cannot provide access anytime, anywhere.
B:Government uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more residents to individual localities. Wireless networking creates a competitive advantage over municipalities that cannot provide access anytime, anywhere.
C:Healthcare uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more patients. Wireless networking creates a competitive advantage over hospitals that cannot provide ready access to patient data.
D:Hospitality uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more guests. A wireless network attracts tradeshow exhibitors and conference coordinators, and it increases customer loyalty for hospitality and hotel establishments.
E:Retail uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more customers. Wireless networking creates a competitive advantage over stores that cannot provide accuracy of inventory and pricing.
Correct Answers: A, D
9.In the United States, what has ultimate jurisdiction over radio frequency regulations?
A: Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
B: Wi-Fi Alliance
C: Federal Communications Commission
D: Wireless Ethernet Compatibility Alliance
E: World Wide Web Consortium
Correct Answers: C
10.The CIO of a digital public-advertising provider wants to deploy a wireless solution at the corporate headquarters. The wireless solution is for the floor where the company holds press conferences and multimedia corporate meetings. The CIO wants a virtual office for corporate guests that enhances the entertainment experience without creating security issues. Which response assures the CIO that unauthorized wireless access points will not be on the network?
A: Cisco is a member of the Wi-Fi Alliance. By enabling Wired Equivalent Privacy keys in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network to encrypt the payload of packets sent, it is almost impossible for hackers to get into the network. If someone gains unauthorized access, the reporting features in the access point will notify IT managers when access points or devices fail authentication.
B: A Cisco Unified Wireless Network has integrated security. Radio management features continuously monitor the radio environment, detect interference and rogue access points, and alert the WLAN administrator to radio network changes. The Cisco location server can map the location of thousands of Wi-Fi clients for IT management and high-value asset tracking. It enforces security policies by identifying and locating rogue access points and devices.
C: Building a Self-Defending Network is key for a wireless solution. Only with the Cisco Network Admission Control Framework can organizations analyze and control all devices on the network. It ensures that every endpoint device complies with corporate security policy and is running the latest and most relevant security protections.
D: Issues with network security always exist. Because IEEE 802.11i standards call for a one-way, device-centric form of authentication, it is inherently flawed. To ensure network security, use powerful, world-class network management features with a Cisco Unified Wireless Network. There is better visibility and control of the air space, as well as the ability to consolidate functionality into a single management system.
Correct Answers: B
Pass4sure CISCO 350-018 Demo V2.83
1.When
building a non-passive FTP data connection, the FTP client:
A: Indicates the port number to be used for sending data over the command channel via the PORT command
B: Receives all data on port 20, the same port the FTP server daemon sends data from
C: Uses port 20 for establishing the command channel and port 21 for the data channel
D: Initiates the connection from an ephemeral port to the RFC specified port of the server
Correct Answers: A
2.What statement is true regarding the following output of the show interface Fast Ethernet0 command?
A: The interface is operating in 100mb Full duplex.
B: There is a high rate of collisions recorded on the interface.
C: There is a physical problem with the connection since there are recorded Runts and CRCs.
D: Collisions, runts and CRC's are normal for a 100mb half-duplex connection.
Correct Answers: D
3.In order to send vendor-specific information about callback from a RADIUS server to a Cisco router, a network administrator would use:
A: Check item 26, vendor code 9, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407
B: Check item 9, vendor code 26, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407
C: Check item 9, reply attribute 26, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407
D: Reply attribute 9, vendor code 26, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407
E: Reply attribute 26, vendor code 9, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407
Correct Answers: E
4.Which protocols can be authenticated? (multiple answer)(Choose Four)
A:HTTP
B:FTP
C:TFTP
D:Telnet
E:SMTP
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E
5.The BGP backdoor command:
A: Changes the distance of an iBGP route to 20
B: Changes the distance of an eBGP route to 200
C: Changes the distance of an IGP route to 200
D: Changes the distance of an IGP route to 20
E: Does not change the distance of the route
Correct Answers: B
6.What are the potential dangers of running the Finger service on hosts?
A: Finger opens a port that data can be transferred to, thus enabling an intruder to access password files.
B: If Finger has a trust relationship to another server, the associated port can be exploited for unauthorized logon.
C: Finger allows users to logon physically to a system if the service aborts.
D: Some Finger services have forwarding capabilities that allow intruders to mask their identities when gaining access to the service.
Correct Answers: D
7.An administrator is attempting to prioritize any audio or video clips that are served by the Human Resources web server over the static content like text and graphics as part of its http flows. What mechanism best accomplishes this?
A: LLC
B: CBWFQ
C: NBAR
D: LFI
E: FRF.8
Correct Answers: C
8.Assume this network has just been brought up. If a user on device 10.1.1.10 pinged device 10.1.3.30 how would Router A forward the ICMP's?
A: Router A would forward the ICMP's out both serial 0 and Ethernet 1.
B: Router A would only forward the ICMP's out Ethernet 1.
C: Router A would only forward the ICMP's out Serial 0.
D: Router A would not forward the ICMP out any interface.
Correct Answers: C
9.What are the only two parts found in a RADIUS user profile?
A: Reply attributes, check attributes
B: Reply items, check items
C: Check items, reply attributes
D: Check attributes, reply items
Correct Answers: C
10.Which three protocols are typically required to tunnel IPSec traffic, including Multicast?(Choose Three)
A:ESP
B:NTP
C:SCEP
D:ISAKMP
E:GRE
F:CEP
Correct Answers: A, D, E
Exam CISCO-642-071 Demo
1.Your customer asks you to design a voice mail only solution that works with the current network topology. They have 14,000 users on a UNIX-based e-mail platform.
All data servers, including the new Active Directory domain controllers you will be installing, are behind the company firewall. They want to place the Unity servers in the phone room with the TDM telephone system where there is no network access from behind the firewall.
Which statement is true?
A: This will not create any problems.
B: The Active Directory servers can be separated from the Unity servers.
C: You should have them supply access to the network from behind the firewall to the phone room for all the Unity servers.
D: You should have them supply access to the network from behind the firewall to the phone room for one of the Unity servers and set up that Unity server as the firewall bridgehead for the rest of the Unity servers.
Correct Answers: C
2.Your customer has a fully distributed message store environment across WAN links that run at 256k. There are 500 subscribers in each physical site. There are five sites and four of them maintain mail stores. Cisco Unity design requirements state that at a minimum you must have how many Unity servers?
A: 2
B: 4
C: 5
D: 8
Correct Answers: B
3.A customer maintains a wholly centralized electronic messaging environment in a single data center, physically located in Denver. The customer uses Microsoft Exchange exclusively, and at this time has a distributed, Cisco CallManager environment consisting of three separate clusters. These clusters support the Denver data center plus three large remote sites in Colorado Springs, Boulder, and Montrose.
The customer's plans call for moving from their centralized, 10 year old Legacy voice mail system to a Unified Messaging system. You offer Cisco Unity as a potential solution.
Given the customer's topology for call processing and messaging, what is your recommendation?
A: You recommend centralized and distributed Unity servers. There are many choices available to you because of the inherent call processingn flexibility built into a pure Cisco CallManager design. You recommend a hybrid solution to demonstrate to the customer the flexibility of the product.
B: You cannot provide an initial design at this time. The customer's need for three Cisco CallManager clusters has brought the design process to a standstill. You MUST go back and convince the customer to fully collapse the CallManager clusters for Cisco Unity to fit into their environment.
C: You recommend centralized Unity systems. Unity MUST reside as physically close as possible to the message stores it will be servicing. Also, since Cisco Unity servers are capable of servicing more than one Cisco CallManager cluster, you decide to offer a centralized messaging and distributed call processing design.
D: You recommend distributed Unity systems. Unity MUST reside as physically close as possible to the CallManager clusters, and Cisco Unity servers MUST maintain a one-to-one relationship to the number of Call Manager clusters in the design. At a minimum, you must provide a three Cisco Unity solution, and they must be distributed to physically mirror the layout of the Cisco CallManager topology.
Correct Answers: C
4.You meet with a customer who is currently collapsing their IBM/Lotus Notes environment from a multi-site, distributed layout to a single data center in Indianapolis. With offices across the United States, (35 of them), and a distributed mix of Legacy non-networked PBXs, you have a very complex environment to try and onverge.
The customer also maintains a wholly distributed Legacy voice mail environment, but wants to treat the data center as a completely new installation with no existing infrastructure with regard to voice mail, and as such is very flexible with voice mail migration options.
When you explain some of the potential technical options given their existing environment, they agree that a Cisco CallManager/Cisco Unity solution is optimal. They have a limited budget this fiscal year, and need to slowly move from this distributed PBX/Electronic Messaging layout to a Cisco solution over the next two years.
What do you recommend to the customer?
A: You offer them centralized Unity for Exchange as a voice mail replacement, since their Notes infrastructure is distributed. Since Unity for Domino CANNOT fit in this environment for a number of reasons, this is their only option.
B: You cannot help them today, since moving slowly will not work given the need to perform ip and replace of PBXs at each of the remote sites. Unity simply cannot fit into their current environment. If they had the budget to perform ip and replace then you could help them.
C: You offer them distributed Unity servers on the edge, since Unity MUST reside as physically close as possible to the Legacy PBXs. You put the CallManager rollout on hold as well, until the customer has the funds necessary to support a ip and replace strategy for the Legacy PBX's. Distributed Unity servers will also be able to better support the migration strategy you know they need for their centralized voice mail servers. In your next meeting, you MUST discuss the voice mail replacement/migration strategy with the customer.
D: Since they are very flexible with the pathway you lead them to, you offer an initial centralized Unity server layout. Since they will be collapsing at least some of their PBX's to a CallManager layout, and they will be fully centralizing their Notes Messaging infrastructure, you have the initial Cisco Unity servers in the data center service those users who will be on the first round of migration from the legacy PBXs to the centralized CallManagers. Over time you will add Unity servers as needed to support the customer's timelines and budget. Cisco Unity can even support a pual PBX integration in the data center, if needed.
Correct Answers: D
5.A customer has all their Exchange 2000 servers located in a centralized messaging configuration at their headquarters (HQ), which also serves as their regional data center. All e-mail users use Outlook, regardless of their location.
The customer has two Legacy PBX's that Unity can support located at the data center. These Legacy PBX's are used only by the users located at HQ. The remote users use CallManager. The breakdown for the number of users on each system is:
Legacy PBX 1 = 6000 phones
Legacy PBX 2 = 5000 phones
CallManager Cluster = 6000 remote IP Phones
The Exchange 2000 servers are configured into Active-Active clusters and support 18,000 mailboxes, with up to 3,000 mailboxes on each cluster. The customer will allocate extra Exchange servers to support Unity. The breakdown is:
Exchange 2000 cluster 1 = 3,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 2 = 3,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 3 = 2,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 4 = 2,500 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 5 = 1,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 6 = 3,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 7 = 3,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 8 = 1,000 mailboxes
All Exchange 2000 clusters are installed into the same Windows 2000 site and into the same Exchange 2000 Admin group and routing group.
All users, regardless of whether they are local or remote are grouped on separate databases in different storage groups on the Exchange 2000 clusters. However, there is not a single Exchange 2000 cluster that is dedicated to a remote location. All clusters have both local and remote users logically grouped on them.
During the planning phase, all Exchange 2000 clusters were found to have enough capacity to support Unified Messaging except for Exchange 2000 cluster 5. The disk arrays used by this cluster were upgraded and now there is enough capacity to support Unified Messaging.
The customer wants administration of all subscribers to be easy. They also want to have a Unity server performing dual integration with Legacy PBX 2 and the CallManager cluster.
Given this scenario, how many Unity servers are needed and how should they be configured to support the eight Exchange 2000 clusters?
A: Unity can only support five Exchange 2000 clusters so you must have at least two Unity servers. You can then connect one Unity server to one Legacy PBX and the CallManager cluster and then connect the other Unity server to the other Legacy PBX.
B: You need four Unity servers and you need to set up a separate partner server for each Unity server. You can then connect one Unity server to two Exchange 2000 clusters. Two Unity servers can connect to Legacy PBX 1, one Unity server can connect to Legacy PBX 2 and CallManager, and one Unity server can connect to CallManager.
C: You should have three 72-port Unity servers connected as follows: one Unity server for Legacy PBX 1, one Unity server for Legacy PBX 2 and CallManager, and one Unity server for CallManager. Since the 6000 remote users are spread across all eight Exchange 2000 clusters, each Unity server should connect to all eight Exchange 2000 clusters and one partner server should be used for all three Unity servers.
D: You should have three 72-port Unity servers connected as follows: one Unity server for Legacy PBX1, one Unity server for Legacy PBX 2 and CallManager, and one Unity server for CallManager. Since the 6000 remote users are spread across all eight Exchange 2000 clusters, only two Unity servers need to connect to all eight clusters. The third Unity server only needs to connect to the four clusters that have local users.
Correct Answers: C
6.In all distributed messaging configurations, Unity must be collocated with CallManager first, so it will use the call processing deployment model first and then the messaging deployment model. How does this affect a customer if they collapse their distributed messaging configurations to a centralized model?
A: A centralized model will be satisfied with Unity collocated with either CallManager or the messaging servers.
B: All Unity servers are able to continue to run and physically remain in their present location even while the messaging servers are moved.
C: In any messaging deployment model, Unity must be collocated with the messaging systems and then consideration must be given to CallManager.
D: All Unity servers must be taken offline and remain in their present location while the messaging servers are moved from the remote locations to the centralized location.
Correct Answers: C
7.Your customer has 9,000 users. They request that you configure a voice mail only solution. Without planning for the domain controllers and global catalog servers, what is the minimum number of Exchange servers you need on which to locate the users?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 5
Correct Answers: C
8.In a Cisco Unity voice messaging only configuration with failover, how many Exchange 2000 routing groups are needed if all Exchange 2000 servers are centralized into one data center, but all users are remotely connected?
A: You only need one routing group.
B: You need one routing group for each remote location.
C: It is more important to install Unity into the same Windows 2000 site and remote routing group.
D: It depends on how the remote users are connected to Unity. If they are using IMAP, they should be able to use any number of routing groups.
Correct Answers: A
9.When installing Cisco Unity into a Lotus Domino messaging environment, one requirement is to install at least one Cisco Unity server per Domino _____.
A: site
B: domain
C: nsf group
D: routing group
Correct Answers: B
10.Click the Exhibit button.
CallManager Cluster A and Unity use extension range 1000?500. CallManager Cluster B and Unity use extension range 3000?450. CallManager Cluster C and Unity use extension range 4200?400.
Your customer wants to deploy Unified Messaging. Exchange stores are local at the data center. Digital networking is an absolute requirement without using access codes.
What is the best solution?
A: Site C needs to have all the servers reinstalled as part of A&B.com.
B: A unique dialing domain is created per Unity location. There is no requirement for one directory.
C: A completely unique "dialing location" is created in CallManager. Unity is assigned to that location.
D: Future growth is planned for by allowing all Unity servers to be in different forests, but be part of the same dialing domain.
Correct Answers: A
Pass4sure Demo and Pdf Download
REVIEW: media analysis released today, Microsoft has 33 career gold
after, Bill - Bill Gates will officially leave on the 27th of this
month, Microsoft is no longer a full-time employees. But Gates will
leave after their show 20 percent of the time for Microsoft-related
projects, while the other 80 percent of the time spent with him and his
wife named the charitable fund projects to charitable approach - rather
than software Change the world.
Although Gates has clearly stated that he would not to a Hollywood-style "back to the Janjaweed," once again return to the Microsoft office, but we still should continue to list his stay, as a full-time employees of Microsoft's 10 major reason for the same time, though very few Gates said Microsoft's departure is a good thing that we have the same list he should leave the 10 major reasons.
Gates should leave the 10 major reasons:
1. He can save large sums for petrol
Like in oil prices has cut the line as the kite soared today, the majority of petrol is indeed a payroll of a small expenditure, although the multi-billionaire Bill Gates, he may not be too concerned about oil prices However, congestion is also a major problem.
2. No longer ignore the criticism and accused the European Union
3. No longer have the U.S. government's accusations
4. Microsoft needs a new leader
5. Steve - Steve Ballmer need "solo"
6. People will forget traffic violations brought him the laughing stock
7. No more similar to "Microsoft Baby" joke
8. Evade Windows 7 can be even worse than the situation of Vista
9. Windows Vista expansion of the structure
10. He has demonstrated the ability to change the world
Gates should continue to stay on the 10 major reasons:
1. Gates, Microsoft may have left "a big ship" experience "waves"
2. Gates amendment to the lack of Windows Vista
3. Windows 7 will be the introduction of Microsoft's turning point
4. Gates from the mistakes of the experience was enough
5. Cisco will be squeezed out unified communications market
6. Gates like to solve problems
7. "Guitar Hero" contest get good results
8. Cloud calculated to lead Microsoft into the field
9. In the final field of Internet search beyond Google
10. Continued to hang around in Microsoft's art collection
